Jason2gs
2012-06-08 21:08:39
Person A has an idea for some software. Person A convinces Person B to write it. Does Person A have any justified claim to part ownership of the software?
Assuming no contracts were signed, there was no gentleman's agreement, and no one was explicitly or implicitly hired.
My argument would be: no, the effort that goes into making a thing should be used to dictate ownership, not the extraneous factors that caused it to be made. Nothing was stolen from Person A, and he could have contracted someone to write it if he wanted to. Person B rightfully has full ownership of the software.
Assuming no contracts were signed, there was no gentleman's agreement, and no one was explicitly or implicitly hired.
My argument would be: no, the effort that goes into making a thing should be used to dictate ownership, not the extraneous factors that caused it to be made. Nothing was stolen from Person A, and he could have contracted someone to write it if he wanted to. Person B rightfully has full ownership of the software.