marpis
2010-05-08 05:36:00
2010-05-08 05:36:00
2010-05-08 09:43:20
2010-05-08 09:49:21
From: 3Garrett3
So this is the same as
ln(x)*e^x = 1 right?
That means ln(x)*e^x - 1 = 0
Put that in my TI-84, and the answer comes out to be x = 1.310
I'm not sure how to do it by hand, I usually do hard equation solving with my calculator.
2010-05-08 09:56:31
From: 3Garrett3
So this is the same as
ln(x)*e^x = 1 right?
That means ln(x)*e^x - 1 = 0
Put that in my TI-84, and the answer comes out to be x = 1.310
I'm not sure how to do it by hand, I usually do hard equation solving with my calculator.
2010-05-08 10:07:28
From: Awkwardsaw
why do you have to subtract the one to use it in the calculator? you shouldnt have to do that :p
and isnt ln(x) the reverse of e^x?
2010-05-08 10:10:36
From: 3Garrett3
Well, my calculator is the best that IB allows, and they don't allow something where you can just enter the equation into it and it tells you the exact answers and how to get it. I have a *Solver* function, which must be equal to 0 in order for it to be used, and it only gives approximate answers.
And ln(x) is the log(base e)x. I know that ln(e^x)) is simply x. But when they are multiplied together, I don't think the same rules apply.
2010-05-08 10:20:00
From: Awkwardsaw
*cough*get a casio*cough*
and kay, i havnt used logs for ever lol. but it seems like there should be somesort of cancelation(sp)?
2010-05-08 14:41:43
From: 3Garrett3
I was provided with a free TI-84 Plus just for doing IB. I wouldn't spend money on a calculator which either a) wasn't allowed by IB or b)could be upgraded when I got to uni.
I'm not sure yet what kind of calculator I'll be allowed in my engineering courses next year, so I wont be getting one until then.
But ontopic, my least favourite portion of the math curriculum was the logs and e^x, so I may have forgotten a rule about cancellations, but I don't remember there being one when they were multiplied.
2010-05-08 14:48:52
From: marpis
e^lnx = x
But if you like Texas Instruments like I do, get a TI-89, it's pure awesomeness! :)
http://education.ti.com/educationportal/sites/US/productDetail/us_ti89ti.html
2010-05-08 16:58:17
2010-05-08 17:36:31
From: 3Garrett3
I do like them, but I am not sure what my Uni is going to say, until I get there next year. So I'll be safe rather than sorry.
e^lnx = x as well as ln(e^x) = x correct?
2010-05-10 00:32:03
2010-05-10 01:08:26
2010-05-10 01:14:49
2010-05-10 13:08:03
2010-05-10 21:09:51
2010-05-11 03:07:57
From: Main_Ftw
Zomg… just use netwon's method :)
2010-05-11 11:16:57
2010-05-11 12:36:14
From: Nava2
Exact answer:
http://mathbin.net/46986
Following the latter derivation, you can use the alternating series approximation theorem to find how ever many decimal places you would like!
:)
2010-05-11 12:38:14
From: marpis
Oh, but I see 2 variables there. That's not an exact answer, nor an answer at all, just a different way to express the function.
2010-05-12 03:31:51
From: Nava2
Actually it is an answer ;)! Use the theorem I mentioned to work out an approximation, my answer is exact. There is no better way to represent it, nor way to calculate it.
In fact, the calculators you guys used probably used that infinite sum, and the theorem to calculate it. Modified for speed of course.
2010-05-12 09:53:25
From: marpis
You see, your sum has both "n" and "x" there, but only giving values to "n".
How can you say it gives a number as an answer o_O Where does the x go?
And I don't want an approximation :p I want an answer like
"e^x*lnx = 1 when x = e^2*ln(2)" or something like that.
2010-05-12 14:53:29
From: Nava2
Exact answer:
http://mathbin.net/46986
Following the latter derivation, you can use the alternating series approximation theorem to find how ever many decimal places you would like!
:)
From: Nava2
Actually it is an answer ;)! Use the theorem I mentioned to work out an approximation, my answer is exact. There is no better way to represent it, nor way to calculate it.
In fact, the calculators you guys used probably used that infinite sum, and the theorem to calculate it. Modified for speed of course.
From: Nava2
If you would read what I said, you would see there is an exact answer as a sum of fractions.
2010-05-12 16:00:16
2010-05-12 16:20:30
From: Nava2
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Alternating_series
2010-05-12 16:24:06
From: Nava2
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Alternating_series
2010-05-15 19:13:51
2010-05-18 05:03:39
2010-05-18 06:25:07
From: Bonfield
e^xlnx = 1
2010-05-18 08:31:45
From: Bonfield
e^xlnx = 1
lnx = 1/(e^x)
1/(e^x) = ln1 - ln(e^x)
= - ln(e^x)
= - x lne
= -x
therefore
lnx = -x
lnx + x = 0
x + e^x =0
that's as far as I got it, I think I messed something up in my substitution in the second line
anyone found the answer?
Sorry if it looks bad this iam on my phone I will edit later
From: Aequix
Need to be careful, the equation in the first post isn't clear.
That equation would have a simple solution (As far as I can tell) :-
e^(xln(x)) = 1
As e^ln(x) = x, it follows that e^(xln(x)) = x^2.
Therefore, x^2 = 1 and as such the solution is x = +/- Sqrt(1)
The actual equation, which you can see by following the link is :- ln(x)*e^x = 1.
2010-05-18 08:42:45
From: Marpis
You can't just add brackets however you want to, leaving them off is just as important as adding them
2010-05-18 09:41:03
From: Aequix
Need to be careful, the equation in the first post isn't clear.
That equation would have a simple solution (As far as I can tell) :-
e^(xln(x)) = 1
As e^ln(x) = x, it follows that e^(xln(x)) = x^2.
Therefore, x^2 = 1 and as such the solution is x = +/- Sqrt(1)
The actual equation, which you can see by following the link is :- ln(x)*e^x = 1.
2010-05-18 10:25:43
On the bolded part you're saying that ln1 - ln(e^x) = lnx
even though ln1=0 and ln(e^x)=x -> ln1 - ln(e^x) = 0 - x = -x
lnx <> -x
:( [\QUOTE]
why can't (e^x)^-1 equal -x
here
Should I take the log of the other side ie ln(lnx) = -x ? I don't think that is right either :( I don't know if that's possible to solve, its been so long since I have done any of this stuff, I will sit down and have a proper go at this tomorrow
just curious do you have the answer marpis? And where did you getthis question?
2010-05-18 13:55:53
From: Bonfield
On the bolded part you're saying that ln1 - ln(e^x) = lnx
even though ln1=0 and ln(e^x)=x -> ln1 - ln(e^x) = 0 - x = -x
lnx <> -x
:( [\QUOTE]
why can't (e^x)^-1 equal -x
here
Should I take the log of the other side ie ln(lnx) = -x ? I don't think that is right either :( I don't know if that's possible to solve, its been so long since I have done any of this stuff, I will sit down and have a proper go at this tomorrow
just curious do you have the answer marpis? And where did you getthis question?
No, I dont and I just came up with it :D Didn't hear about it anywhere, I just like inspecting random functions with "e" in them when I'm bored. Go ahead, call me a nerd.
2010-05-18 15:12:10
From: marpis
No, I dont and I just came up with it :D Didn't hear about it anywhere, I just like inspecting random functions with "e" in them when I'm bored. Go ahead, call me a nerd.
2010-05-18 15:44:23
2010-05-18 16:47:09
2010-05-19 03:36:05
2010-05-19 16:25:25
2010-05-19 16:57:38
2010-05-19 18:12:17
2010-05-20 01:52:23
From: g0tp0t
the equation is not simpler or harder. it is the same. you are right. that is as simplified as it gets. this cant be solved algebraicly
in other words there is no next step. there are a ton of equations which cannot be solved algebraicly. just like there is no formula for PI


From: g0tp0t
lol. that is as far as it goes. it might be an irrational number. ii am fairly sure it is. but you could guess and check to see if you can reach the end. i would run a program that did it. never do it myself :P. i think it is likely that it might never end though.
2010-05-21 18:47:32
2010-05-21 19:02:17
2010-05-22 15:43:19
From: Main_Ftw
My teacher said before that pi can be derived from limit as n -> infinity of polygon's perimeter divided by 2 or something. n is the number of sides.
2010-07-07 19:58:15
ln(x) is continous and deriving ]0, infinity[
e^x is continuous and deriving ]-inf, inf[
-> ln(x)*e^x is continous and deriving ]0, infinity[
thus lnx*e^x = 1 has a solution (only one in this case, derivative is always positive)
2010-07-08 02:57:27
From: lollage22
Are you sure?
3 is continous and deriving ]0, infinity[
5 is continuous and deriving ]-inf, inf[
-> 3*5 is continous and deriving ]0, infinity[
thus 3*5 = 1 has a solution (only one in this case, derivative is always positive)
Clearly, 3*5 does not equal 1…
2010-07-08 07:53:35
